设f(x)在点x=0可导,且limx→0cosx?1ef(x)?1=1,则f′(0)=______

设f(x)在点x=0可导,且limx→0cosx?1ef(x)?1=1,则f′(0)=______.
2025-06-21 18:43:55
推荐回答(1个)
回答1:

lim
x→0
cosx?1
ef(x)?1
=1,
可知
lim
x→0
f(x)=f(0)=0

利用等价无穷小代换可得,
lim
x→0
?
x2
2
f(x)
=
lim
x→0
cosx?1
ef(x)?1
=1

于是,
f′(0)=
lim
x→0
f(x)?f(0)
x?0

=
lim
x→0
f(x)
x

=
lim
x→0
f(x)
?
x2
2
?
?x
2

=
lim
x→0
f(x)
?
x2
2
?
lim
x→0
(?
x
2
)

=1×0
=0.
故答案为:0.